Physics
Q1Kinematics
A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at $2\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$ for $10\ \mathrm{s}$. The distance covered is
- a200 m
- b20 m
- c100 m
- d50 m
Answer (c): $s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2 = 0 + \frac{1}{2}(2)(10)^2 = 100$ m.
Revise: Kinematics (Class 11 notes)
Q2Physical quantities
The dimensional formula of pressure is
- a$ML^{-1}T^{-2}$
- b$MLT^{-2}$
- c$ML^2T^{-2}$
- d$ML^{-2}T^{-2}$
Answer (a): Pressure = force/area = $MLT^{-2}/L^2 = ML^{-1}T^{-2}$.
Revise: Physical Quantities (Class 11 notes)
Q3Vectors
Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles on a body. The magnitude of their resultant is
- a7 N
- b5 N
- c1 N
- d12 N
Answer (b): $R = \sqrt{3^2 + 4^2} = 5$ N.
Revise: Vectors (Class 11 notes)
Q4Dynamics
A 5 kg block is pulled along a rough floor by a 30 N horizontal force. The friction force is 10 N. The acceleration of the block is
- a$6\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$
- b$8\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$
- c$2\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$
- d$4\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$
Answer (d): Net force $= 30 - 10 = 20$ N, so $a = F/m = 20/5 = 4\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$.
Revise: Dynamics (Class 11 notes)
Q5Work, energy and power
A 2 kg ball is lifted through 5 m at constant speed. Work done against gravity is ($g = 10\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$)
- a10 J
- b50 J
- c100 J
- d25 J
Answer (c): $W = mgh = 2 \times 10 \times 5 = 100$ J.
Revise: Work, Energy and Power (Class 11 notes)
Q6Gravitation
The acceleration due to gravity at a point at distance $2R$ from the centre of the Earth (R = radius) is
- a$g/2$
- b$g/9$
- c$g/3$
- d$g/4$
Answer (d): $g' = GM/(2R)^2 = g/4$, since $g$ varies as $1/r^2$.
Revise: Gravitation (Class 11 notes)
Q7Circular motion
A 0.5 kg mass moves in a circle of radius 2 m with a speed of 4 m/s. The centripetal force is
- a1 N
- b8 N
- c16 N
- d4 N
Answer (d): $F = mv^2/r = 0.5 \times 16 / 2 = 4$ N.
Revise: Circular Motion (Class 11 notes)
Q8Elasticity
A wire of cross-section $1\ \mathrm{mm^2}$ carries a stretching force of 100 N and the strain produced is $10^{-3}$. Young's modulus of the wire is
- a$10^{8}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}$
- b$10^{10}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}$
- c$10^{11}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}$
- d$10^{12}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}$
Answer (c): Stress $= 100/10^{-6} = 10^8$ Pa; $Y = \text{stress}/\text{strain} = 10^8/10^{-3} = 10^{11}$ N/m$^2$.
Revise: Elasticity (Class 11 notes)
Q9Rotational dynamics
A disc of moment of inertia $2\ \mathrm{kg,m^2}$ rotates at $10\ \mathrm{rad/s}$. Its rotational kinetic energy is
- a100 J
- b200 J
- c20 J
- d50 J
Answer (a): $K = \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = \frac{1}{2}(2)(100) = 100$ J.
Revise: Rotational Dynamic (Class 12 notes)
Q10Periodic motion
If the length of a simple pendulum is made four times, its time period
- abecomes half
- bbecomes four times
- cremains unchanged
- dbecomes double
Answer (d): $T = 2\pi\sqrt{L/g}$, so $T \propto \sqrt{L}$; four times $L$ gives $\sqrt{4} = 2$ times $T$.
Revise: Periodic Motion (Class 12 notes)
Q11Quantity of heat
Heat required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of water by $10^\circ$C is ($c = 4200\ \mathrm{J/kg,K}$)
- a8400 J
- b42000 J
- c84000 J
- d840000 J
Answer (c): $Q = mc\Delta T = 2 \times 4200 \times 10 = 84000$ J.
Revise: Quantity of Heat (Class 11 notes)
Q12Heat and temperature
The temperature at which Celsius and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading is
- a$40^\circ$
- b$-40^\circ$
- c$0^\circ$
- d$-273^\circ$
Answer (b): Put $C = F$ in $F = 1.8C + 32$: $C = 1.8C + 32$, so $C = -40$.
Revise: Heat and Temperature (Class 11 notes)
Q13Thermal expansion
A metal rod 2 m long ($\alpha = 1.2\times10^{-5}\ \mathrm{K^{-1}}$) is heated by $50\ \mathrm{K}$. Its increase in length is
- a1.2 mm
- b0.12 mm
- c12 mm
- d2.4 mm
Answer (a): $\Delta L = L\alpha\Delta T = 2 \times 1.2\times10^{-5} \times 50 = 1.2\times10^{-3}$ m $= 1.2$ mm.
Revise: Thermal Expansion (Class 11 notes)
Q14First law of thermodynamics
A gas absorbs 500 J of heat and does 200 J of work on the surroundings. The change in its internal energy is
- a700 J
- b300 J
- c200 J
- d-300 J
Answer (b): $\Delta U = Q - W = 500 - 200 = 300$ J.
Revise: First Law of Thermodynamics (Class 12 notes)
Q15Second law of thermodynamics
A Carnot engine works between 400 K and 300 K. Its efficiency is
- a75%
- b33%
- c12.5%
- d25%
Answer (d): $\eta = 1 - T_2/T_1 = 1 - 300/400 = 0.25$.
Revise: Second Law of Thermodynamics (Class 12 notes)
Q16First law of thermodynamics
In an isothermal process of an ideal gas, the
- aheat exchanged is zero
- bpressure stays constant
- cinternal energy does not change
- dvolume stays constant
Answer (c): Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature, so it is unchanged when temperature is constant.
Revise: First Law of Thermodynamics (Class 12 notes)
Q17Rate of heat flow
For conduction through a slab, if the thickness is doubled with the same area and temperature difference, the rate of heat flow
- abecomes double
- bbecomes four times
- cremains the same
- dbecomes half
Answer (d): $H = kA\Delta T/d$, so $H \propto 1/d$.
Revise: Rate of Heat Flow (Class 11 notes)
Q18Wave motion
A wave has frequency 50 Hz and wavelength 4 m. Its speed is
- a$200\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- b$12.5\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- c$54\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- d$100\ \mathrm{m/s}$
Answer (a): $v = f\lambda = 50 \times 4 = 200$ m/s.
Revise: Wave Motion (Class 12 notes)
Q19Waves in pipes and strings
The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe 0.5 m long is (speed of sound = 340 m/s)
- a340 Hz
- b680 Hz
- c85 Hz
- d170 Hz
Answer (d): $f = v/4L = 340/(4 \times 0.5) = 170$ Hz.
Revise: Wave in Pipes and Strings (Class 12 notes)
Q20Acoustic phenomena
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz are sounded together. The number of beats heard per second is
- a2
- b4
- c8
- d516
Answer (b): Beat frequency $= |260 - 256| = 4$.
Revise: Acoustic Phenomena (Class 12 notes)
Q21Reflection at curved mirrors
An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image forms at a distance of
- a7.5 cm
- b15 cm
- c30 cm
- d20 cm
Answer (b): $1/v = 1/f - 1/u = 1/10 - 1/30 = 2/30$, so $v = 15$ cm.
Revise: Reflection at Curved Mirrors (Class 11 notes)
Q22Refraction at plane surface
The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is ($c = 3\times10^8\ \mathrm{m/s}$)
- a$2\times10^8\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- b$4.5\times10^8\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- c$1.5\times10^8\ \mathrm{m/s}$
- d$3\times10^8\ \mathrm{m/s}$
Answer (a): $v = c/\mu = 3\times10^8/1.5 = 2\times10^8$ m/s.
Revise: Refraction at Plane Surface (Class 11 notes)
Q23Lenses
The power of a converging lens of focal length 25 cm is
- a+4 D
- b-4 D
- c+25 D
- d+0.04 D
Answer (a): $P = 1/f(\mathrm{m}) = 1/0.25 = +4$ D, positive for a converging lens.
Revise: Lenses (Class 11 notes)
Q24Interference
In Young's double slit experiment, $\lambda = 600$ nm, $D = 1$ m and $d = 0.6$ mm. The fringe width is
- a0.6 mm
- b10 mm
- c1 mm
- d0.1 mm
Answer (c): $\beta = \lambda D/d = (600\times10^{-9} \times 1)/(0.6\times10^{-3}) = 10^{-3}$ m.
Revise: Interference (Class 12 notes)
Q25Polarization of light
Light is completely polarised on reflection from a surface of refractive index $\sqrt{3}$. The angle of incidence is
- a$30^\circ$
- b$60^\circ$
- c$45^\circ$
- d$90^\circ$
Answer (b): Brewster's law: $\tan\theta_p = \mu = \sqrt{3}$, so $\theta_p = 60^\circ$.
Revise: Polarization of Light (Class 12 notes)
Q26DC circuit
Resistors of $6\ \Omega$ and $3\ \Omega$ are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is
- a$2\ \Omega$
- b$9\ \Omega$
- c$4.5\ \Omega$
- d$0.5\ \Omega$
Answer (a): $R = (6\times3)/(6+3) = 2\ \Omega$.
Revise: DC Circuit (Class 11 notes)
Q27DC circuit
A heater of power 2 kW is connected to a 250 V supply. The current drawn is
- a8 A
- b80 A
- c0.125 A
- d12.5 A
Answer (a): $I = P/V = 2000/250 = 8$ A.
Revise: DC Circuit (Class 11 notes)
Q28DC circuit
One kilowatt-hour is equal to
- a$3.6\times10^3$ J
- b$3.6\times10^5$ J
- c$10^3$ J
- d$3.6\times10^6$ J
Answer (d): $1\ \mathrm{kWh} = 1000\ \mathrm{W} \times 3600\ \mathrm{s} = 3.6\times10^6$ J.
Revise: DC Circuit (Class 11 notes)
Q29Electrical circuit
A cell of emf 12 V and internal resistance $1\ \Omega$ is connected to an external resistance of $5\ \Omega$. The terminal potential difference is
- a10 V
- b12 V
- c2 V
- d11 V
Answer (a): $I = 12/(5+1) = 2$ A; $V = IR = 2 \times 5 = 10$ V.
Revise: Electrical Circuit One (Class 12 notes)
Q30Magnetic field
A 0.5 m wire carrying 4 A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.5 T. The force on the wire is
- a0.25 N
- b2 N
- c1 N
- d4 N
Answer (c): $F = BIL = 0.5 \times 4 \times 0.5 = 1$ N.
Revise: Magnetic Field (Class 12 notes)
Q31Electromagnetic induction
The magnetic flux through a coil falls from 0.5 Wb to 0.1 Wb in 0.2 s. The magnitude of the induced emf is
- a2 V
- b0.4 V
- c3 V
- d0.08 V
Answer (a): $\varepsilon = \Delta\Phi/\Delta t = 0.4/0.2 = 2$ V.
Revise: Electromagnetic Induction (Class 12 notes)
Q32Electromagnetic induction
A transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 500 turns in the secondary. For 20 V applied to the primary, the secondary voltage is
- a4 V
- b100 V
- c20 V
- d500 V
Answer (b): $V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p$, so $V_s = 20 \times 500/100 = 100$ V.
Revise: Electromagnetic Induction (Class 12 notes)
Q33Alternating currents
An AC source has a peak voltage of 100 V. Its rms voltage is about
- a100 V
- b141.4 V
- c70.7 V
- d50 V
Answer (c): $V_{rms} = V_0/\sqrt{2} = 100/1.414 \approx 70.7$ V.
Revise: Alternating Currents (Class 12 notes)
Q34Magnetic properties of materials
A material that is weakly repelled by a magnet is called
- aparamagnetic
- bdiamagnetic
- cferromagnetic
- dantiferromagnetic
Answer (b): Diamagnetic substances develop a magnetisation opposite to the applied field, so they are weakly repelled.
Revise: Magnetic Properties of Materials (Class 12 notes)
Q35Electric charges
Two charges of $2\ \mu$C and $3\ \mu$C are 0.3 m apart in air. The force between them is
- a0.06 N
- b0.6 N
- c6 N
- d1.8 N
Answer (b): $F = kq_1q_2/r^2 = 9\times10^9 \times 6\times10^{-12}/0.09 = 0.6$ N.
Revise: Electric Charges (Class 11 notes)
Q36Electric field
If the distance from a point charge is doubled, the electric field strength becomes
- ahalf
- bdouble
- cfour times
- done quarter
Answer (d): $E \propto 1/r^2$, so doubling $r$ reduces $E$ to $1/4$.
Revise: Electric Field (Class 11 notes)
Q37Capacitor
Capacitors of $6\ \mu$F and $3\ \mu$F are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is
- a$9\ \mu$F
- b$1\ \mu$F
- c$2\ \mu$F
- d$4.5\ \mu$F
Answer (c): $C = (6\times3)/(6+3) = 2\ \mu$F.
Revise: Capacitor (Class 11 notes)
Q38Capacitor
The energy stored in a $10\ \mu$F capacitor charged to 100 V is
- a0.5 J
- b0.1 J
- c0.05 J
- d$5\times10^{-3}$ J
Answer (c): $U = \frac{1}{2}CV^2 = \frac{1}{2}(10^{-5})(10^4) = 0.05$ J.
Revise: Capacitor (Class 11 notes)
Q39Photons
Light of photon energy 3 eV falls on a metal of work function 2 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is
- a5 eV
- b2 eV
- c1 eV
- d3 eV
Answer (c): $K_{max} = h\nu - \phi = 3 - 2 = 1$ eV.
Revise: Photons (Class 12 notes)
Q40Photons
The energy of a photon of wavelength 620 nm is about
- a4 eV
- b1 eV
- c0.5 eV
- d2 eV
Answer (d): $E = 1240/\lambda\ (\mathrm{nm})$ eV $= 1240/620 = 2$ eV.
Revise: Photons (Class 12 notes)
Q41Quantization of energy
If the momentum of a particle is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength
- abecomes double
- bremains the same
- cbecomes half
- dbecomes four times
Answer (c): $\lambda = h/p$, so $\lambda \propto 1/p$.
Revise: Quantization of Energy (Class 12 notes)
Q42Quantization of energy
The energy of the electron in the $n = 2$ orbit of a hydrogen atom is
- a-13.6 eV
- b-3.4 eV
- c-1.51 eV
- d-6.8 eV
Answer (b): $E_n = -13.6/n^2 = -13.6/4 = -3.4$ eV.
Revise: Quantization of Energy (Class 12 notes)
Q43Radioactivity
The half-life of a radioactive sample is 10 days. The fraction left after 30 days is
- a1/3
- b1/6
- c1/16
- d1/8
Answer (d): 30 days is 3 half-lives, so fraction $= (1/2)^3 = 1/8$.
Revise: Radioactivity and Nuclear Reaction (Class 12 notes)
Q44Nuclear physics
The number of neutrons in a nucleus of $^{238}_{92}\mathrm{U}$ is
- a146
- b92
- c238
- d330
Answer (a): $N = A - Z = 238 - 92 = 146$.
Revise: Nuclear Physics (Class 11 notes)
Q45Electrons (X-rays)
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced at an accelerating voltage of 40 kV is about
- a$3.1\ \text{\AA}$
- b$0.31\ \text{\AA}$
- c$0.031\ \text{\AA}$
- d$1.24\ \text{\AA}$
Answer (b): $\lambda_{min} = 12400/V\ \text{\AA} = 12400/40000 = 0.31\ \text{\AA}$.
Revise: Electrons (Class 12 notes)
Q46Semiconductor devices
An n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping pure silicon with
- aphosphorus
- bboron
- caluminium
- dgallium
Answer (a): Phosphorus is pentavalent and donates a free electron; the others are trivalent acceptors.
Revise: Semiconductor Devices (Class 12 notes)
Q47Semiconductor devices
A full-wave rectifier is fed with a 50 Hz AC supply. The frequency of the output ripple is
- a50 Hz
- b100 Hz
- c25 Hz
- d200 Hz
Answer (b): Both half cycles are used, so the output has twice the input frequency.
Revise: Semiconductor Devices (Class 12 notes)
Q48Semiconductor devices
Which of the following is a universal logic gate?
- aAND
- bNAND
- cOR
- dXOR
Answer (b): Any other gate can be built from NAND gates alone, so NAND is universal.
Revise: Semiconductor Devices (Class 12 notes)
Q49Semiconductor devices
A transistor has current gain $\beta = 50$ and base current $40\ \mu$A. The collector current is
- a0.8 mA
- b20 mA
- c$2\ \mu$A
- d2 mA
Answer (d): $I_C = \beta I_B = 50 \times 40\ \mu\mathrm{A} = 2000\ \mu\mathrm{A} = 2$ mA.
Revise: Semiconductor Devices (Class 12 notes)
Q50Radioactivity
A nuclear reaction has a mass defect of 0.02 u. The energy released is (1 u = 931.5 MeV)
- a18.63 MeV
- b1.863 MeV
- c186.3 MeV
- d46.6 MeV
Answer (a): $E = 0.02 \times 931.5 = 18.63$ MeV.
Revise: Radioactivity and Nuclear Reaction (Class 12 notes)
Chemistry
Q51Mole concept
The number of molecules in 11 g of carbon dioxide is (Avogadro number $N_A = 6.02\times10^{23}$)
- a$3.0\times10^{23}$
- b$6.02\times10^{23}$
- c$1.5\times10^{23}$
- d$2.4\times10^{24}$
Answer (c): Moles $= 11/44 = 0.25$; molecules $= 0.25 \times 6.02\times10^{23} \approx 1.5\times10^{23}$.
Revise: Stoichiometry (Class 11 notes)
Q52Concentration
The mass of NaOH required to prepare 500 mL of 0.1 M solution is (Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
- a4 g
- b0.2 g
- c2 g
- d20 g
Answer (c): Moles $= 0.1 \times 0.5 = 0.05$; mass $= 0.05 \times 40 = 2$ g.
Revise: Stoichiometry (Class 11 notes)
Q53Atomic structure
The maximum number of electrons in the shell with $n = 3$ is
- a8
- b9
- c18
- d32
Answer (c): Maximum $= 2n^2 = 2 \times 9 = 18$.
Revise: Atomic Structure (Class 11 notes)
Q54Atomic structure
The number of unpaired electrons in $\mathrm{Mn^{2+}}$ (Z = 25) is
- a3
- b4
- c2
- d5
Answer (d): $\mathrm{Mn^{2+}}$ is $[\mathrm{Ar}]3d^5$; each of the five d orbitals holds one unpaired electron.
Revise: Atomic Structure (Class 11 notes)
Q55Quantum numbers
Which set of quantum numbers $(n, l, m)$ is NOT possible?
- a(3, 2, -2)
- b(2, 1, 0)
- c(1, 0, 0)
- d(2, 2, 1)
Answer (d): $l$ must be less than $n$, so $n = 2$ cannot have $l = 2$.
Revise: Atomic Structure (Class 11 notes)
Q56Chemical bonding
The shape of the $\mathrm{NH_3}$ molecule is
- atrigonal planar
- btetrahedral
- cbent
- dtrigonal pyramidal
Answer (d): Three bond pairs and one lone pair on N give a pyramidal shape.
Revise: Chemical Bonding (Class 11 notes)
Q57Chemical bonding
The hybridisation of sulphur in $\mathrm{SF_6}$ is
- a$sp^3d^2$
- b$sp^3d$
- c$sp^3$
- d$sp^2$
Answer (a): Six bond pairs and no lone pair mean six hybrid orbitals, so $sp^3d^2$.
Revise: Chemical Bonding (Class 11 notes)
Q58States of matter
A gas occupies 2 L at 1 atm. At constant temperature it is compressed to 0.5 L. The new pressure is
- a4 atm
- b0.25 atm
- c2 atm
- d1 atm
Answer (a): $P_1V_1 = P_2V_2$: $P_2 = 1 \times 2/0.5 = 4$ atm.
Revise: States of Matter (Class 11 notes)
Q59States of matter
The ratio of the rates of diffusion of $\mathrm{H_2}$ and $\mathrm{O_2}$ under the same conditions is
- a16 : 1
- b1 : 4
- c4 : 1
- d2 : 1
Answer (c): Graham's law: $r_1/r_2 = \sqrt{M_2/M_1} = \sqrt{32/2} = 4$.
Revise: States of Matter (Class 11 notes)
Q60Chemical equilibrium
For $\mathrm{N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3}$, increasing the pressure at constant temperature shifts the equilibrium
- atowards the product side
- btowards the reactant side
- cnowhere, it has no effect
- dtowards the side with more moles
Answer (a): There are fewer moles of gas on the product side (2 against 4), so higher pressure favours the forward reaction.
Revise: Chemical Equilibrium (Class 11 notes)
Q61Ionic equilibrium
The pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is
- a1
- b12
- c2
- d0.01
Answer (c): $\mathrm{pH} = -\log[H^+] = -\log(10^{-2}) = 2$.
Revise: Ionic Equilibrium (Class 12 notes)
Q62Ionic equilibrium
Which of the following pairs forms an acidic buffer?
- a$\mathrm{NH_4OH + NH_4Cl}$
- b$\mathrm{CH_3COOH + CH_3COONa}$
- c$\mathrm{HCl + NaCl}$
- d$\mathrm{NaOH + NaCl}$
Answer (b): An acidic buffer is a weak acid with its salt of a strong base; the second pair is a basic buffer and the others are not buffers.
Revise: Ionic Equilibrium (Class 12 notes)
Q63Thermochemistry
Given $\mathrm{C + O_2 \to CO_2}$, $\Delta H = -393$ kJ and $\mathrm{CO + \tfrac{1}{2}O_2 \to CO_2}$, $\Delta H = -283$ kJ, the $\Delta H$ for $\mathrm{C + \tfrac{1}{2}O_2 \to CO}$ is
- a-676 kJ
- b-110 kJ
- c+110 kJ
- d-283 kJ
Answer (b): Hess's law: subtract the second equation from the first: $-393 - (-283) = -110$ kJ.
Revise: Chemical Thermodynamic (Class 12 notes)
Q64Electrochemistry
The mass of copper deposited when 2 A flows for 965 s through a $\mathrm{Cu^{2+}}$ solution is (Cu = 63.5, 1 F = 96500 C)
- a1.27 g
- b0.635 g
- c0.3175 g
- d6.35 g
Answer (b): $Q = 1930$ C $= 0.02$ F; $\mathrm{Cu^{2+}} + 2e^- \to \mathrm{Cu}$ gives $0.01$ mol $= 0.635$ g.
Revise: Electrochemistry (Class 12 notes)
Q65Electrochemistry
$E^\circ$ of $\mathrm{Zn^{2+}/Zn}$ is $-0.76$ V and of $\mathrm{Cu^{2+}/Cu}$ is $+0.34$ V. The standard emf of the Zn-Cu cell is
- a0.42 V
- b1.10 V
- c1.52 V
- d0.76 V
Answer (b): $E^\circ_{cell} = E^\circ_{cathode} - E^\circ_{anode} = 0.34 - (-0.76) = 1.10$ V.
Revise: Electrochemistry (Class 12 notes)
Q66Chemical kinetics
A first order reaction has $k = 0.0693\ \mathrm{min^{-1}}$. Its half-life is
- a10 min
- b1 min
- c100 min
- d6.93 min
Answer (a): $t_{1/2} = 0.693/k = 0.693/0.0693 = 10$ min.
Revise: Chemical Kinetics (Class 12 notes)
Q67Chemical kinetics
For a reaction with rate $= k[A]^2$, doubling the concentration of A makes the rate
- adouble
- bunchanged
- ceight times
- dfour times
Answer (d): Rate $\propto [A]^2$, so $2^2 = 4$ times.
Revise: Chemical Kinetics (Class 12 notes)
Q68Periodic table
The most electronegative element is
- achlorine
- bfluorine
- coxygen
- dnitrogen
Answer (b): Electronegativity increases across a period and up a group; fluorine has the highest value (4.0).
Revise: Classification of Elements (Class 11 notes)
Q69Periodic table
Which of the following has the highest first ionisation energy?
- aNa
- bMg
- cNe
- dK
Answer (c): Noble gases have the highest ionisation energies in their period, and Ne is smaller than the others listed.
Revise: Classification of Elements (Class 11 notes)
Q70s-block
Which alkali metal salt imparts a golden yellow colour to the Bunsen flame?
- apotassium
- blithium
- ccaesium
- dsodium
Answer (d): Na gives golden yellow, K lilac, Li crimson red.
Revise: Chemistry of Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q71s-block
The chemical formula of plaster of Paris is
- a$\mathrm{CaSO_4\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}H_2O}$
- b$\mathrm{CaSO_4\cdot2H_2O}$
- c$\mathrm{CaSO_4}$
- d$\mathrm{CaSO_4\cdot H_2O}$
Answer (a): Gypsum on heating at about 120 C loses part of its water to give the hemihydrate.
Revise: Chemistry of Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q72Metallurgy
Froth flotation is used to concentrate
- aoxide ores
- bcarbonate ores
- chalide ores
- dsulphide ores
Answer (d): Sulphide ore particles are wetted by oil and carried up in the froth, leaving gangue behind.
Revise: Chemistry of Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q73Non-metals
The catalyst used in the contact process for sulphuric acid manufacture is
- aFe
- bNi
- c$\mathrm{Al_2O_3}$
- d$\mathrm{V_2O_5}$
Answer (d): $\mathrm{V_2O_5}$ catalyses $2SO_2 + O_2 \to 2SO_3$; Fe is the Haber process catalyst.
Revise: Chemistry of Non-Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q74Non-metals
Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid to evolve mainly
- a$\mathrm{NO_2}$
- b$\mathrm{N_2O}$
- c$\mathrm{H_2}$
- dNO
Answer (d): $3Cu + 8HNO_3(dil) \to 3Cu(NO_3)_2 + 2NO + 4H_2O$.
Revise: Chemistry of Non-Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q75Halogens
The halogen which exists as a liquid at room temperature is
- abromine
- bchlorine
- ciodine
- dfluorine
Answer (a): Bromine is a red-brown volatile liquid; Cl and F are gases and iodine is a solid.
Revise: Chemistry of Non-Metals (Class 11 notes)
Q76d-block
Which of the following ions is colourless in aqueous solution?
- a$\mathrm{Zn^{2+}}$
- b$\mathrm{Cu^{2+}}$
- c$\mathrm{Ni^{2+}}$
- d$\mathrm{Co^{2+}}$
Answer (a): $\mathrm{Zn^{2+}}$ is $3d^{10}$, with no d-d transition possible, so it is colourless.
Revise: Transition Metals (Class 12 notes)
Q77Oxidation and reduction
The oxidation state of chromium in $\mathrm{K_2Cr_2O_7}$ is
- a+3
- b+7
- c+12
- d+6
Answer (d): $2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0$, so $x = +6$.
Revise: Oxidation and Reduction (Class 11 notes)
Q78IUPAC naming
The IUPAC name of $\mathrm{CH_3CH(CH_3)CH_2CH_3}$ is
- a3-methylbutane
- b2-methylbutane
- c2-ethylpropane
- d1,1-dimethylpropane
Answer (b): The longest chain has four carbons, and numbering from the end nearest the branch puts the methyl on C-2.
Revise: Fundamental Principles (Class 11 notes)
Q79Isomerism
The number of structural isomers of $\mathrm{C_4H_{10}}$ is
- a3
- b4
- c1
- d2
Answer (d): Butane and 2-methylpropane (isobutane).
Revise: Fundamental Principles (Class 11 notes)
Q80Hydrocarbons
Ethene reacts with bromine in carbon tetrachloride to give
- a1,2-dibromoethane
- b1,1-dibromoethane
- cbromoethane
- dethyne
Answer (a): Bromine adds across the double bond, putting one Br on each carbon.
Revise: Hydrocarbons (Class 11 notes)
Q81Hydrocarbons
Propene reacts with HBr (Markovnikov addition) to give mainly
- a1-bromopropane
- b1,2-dibromopropane
- c2-bromopropane
- d2-bromopropene
Answer (c): The H goes to the carbon with more hydrogens, so Br attaches to the middle carbon.
Revise: Hydrocarbons (Class 11 notes)
Q82Aromatic hydrocarbons
Benzene is nitrated using
- adil. $\mathrm{HNO_3}$ only
- b$\mathrm{NaNO_2}$ + HCl
- cconc. $\mathrm{HNO_3}$ + conc. $\mathrm{H_2SO_4}$
- dconc. HCl + conc. $\mathrm{HNO_3}$
Answer (c): The nitrating mixture produces the electrophile $\mathrm{NO_2^+}$.
Revise: Aromatic Hydrocarbons (Class 11 notes)
Q83Haloalkanes
Ethyl chloride on heating with aqueous KOH gives
- aethene
- bethane
- cethanol
- ddiethyl ether
Answer (c): Aqueous KOH causes nucleophilic substitution; alcoholic KOH would cause elimination to ethene.
Revise: Haloalkanes (Class 12 notes)
Q84Alcohols
Which alcohol gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent at room temperature?
- abutan-1-ol
- b2-methylpropan-2-ol
- cbutan-2-ol
- dethanol
Answer (b): Tertiary alcohols give the most stable carbocation and react at once.
Revise: Alcohols (Class 12 notes)
Q85Phenols
Phenol gives which colour with neutral ferric chloride solution?
- ablood red
- byellow
- cviolet
- dgreen
Answer (c): Phenol forms a violet iron(III) phenoxide complex, which is a standard test.
Revise: Phenols (Class 12 notes)
Q86Ethers
Diethyl ether is prepared by heating excess ethanol with conc. sulphuric acid at about
- a$140^\circ$C
- b$170^\circ$C
- c$100^\circ$C
- d$200^\circ$C
Answer (a): At $140^\circ$C, ether forms by dehydration of two ethanol molecules; at $170^\circ$C ethene forms.
Revise: Ethers (Class 12 notes)
Q87Aldehydes and ketones
Which compound gives a positive Tollens' test?
- aethanal
- bpropanone
- cethanol
- ddiethyl ether
Answer (a): Aldehydes reduce the silver ammonia complex to a silver mirror; ketones do not.
Revise: Aldehydes and Ketones (Class 12 notes)
Q88Carboxylic acids
Which of the following is the strongest acid?
- a$\mathrm{CH_3COOH}$
- b$\mathrm{HCOOH}$
- c$\mathrm{CH_3CH_2COOH}$
- d$\mathrm{(CH_3)_2CHCOOH}$
Answer (b): Alkyl groups donate electrons and weaken the acid; formic acid has none.
Revise: Carboxylic Acids (Class 12 notes)
Q89Amines
Which of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
- adimethylamine
- baniline
- cammonia
- dtrimethylamine
Answer (a): Two alkyl groups raise the electron density on N, and the secondary amine is also well solvated; aniline is weakened by resonance.
Revise: Amines (Class 12 notes)
Q90Biomolecules
Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
- asucrose
- bglucose
- cmaltose
- dlactose
Answer (a): In sucrose the anomeric carbons of glucose and fructose are joined through the glycosidic bond, leaving no free aldehyde or ketone group.
Q91Biomolecules
The linkage that joins amino acids in a protein is
- a$\mathrm{-COO-}$
- b$\mathrm{-NH-NH-}$
- c$\mathrm{-CO-NH-}$
- d$\mathrm{-CO-O-CO-}$
Answer (c): A peptide bond is an amide bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next.
Q92Polymers
Nylon-6,6 is formed by the condensation of
- aethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
- bhexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
- cphenol and formaldehyde
- dcaprolactam alone
Answer (b): Diamine plus diacid gives a polyamide with loss of water.
Q93Isomerism
Which of the following shows optical isomerism?
- abutan-2-ol
- bpropan-2-ol
- cethanol
- dbutan-1-ol
Answer (a): Butan-2-ol has a carbon attached to four different groups (H, OH, CH3, C2H5).
Revise: Fundamental Principles (Class 11 notes)
Q94Carboxylic acids
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of conc. sulphuric acid to form
- adiethyl ether
- bethanal
- cethyl ethanamide
- dethyl ethanoate
Answer (d): This is esterification, giving an ester and water.
Revise: Carboxylic Acids (Class 12 notes)
Q95Cement
Gypsum is added to cement clinker during grinding in order to
- aspeed up the setting
- bincrease its colour
- cincrease its alkalinity
- dslow down the setting
Answer (d): Without gypsum, cement sets almost instantly; gypsum controls the setting time.
Revise: Cement (Class 12 notes)
Q96Soaps and detergents
Soap is chemically the
- acalcium salt of a mineral acid
- bsodium salt of a long-chain fatty acid
- cester of glycerol
- dsodium salt of a benzene sulphonic acid
Answer (b): Saponification of fats with NaOH gives sodium salts of fatty acids plus glycerol.
Revise: Chemistry in the Service to Mankind (Class 12 notes)
Q97Fertilisers
The percentage of nitrogen in urea, $\mathrm{CO(NH_2)_2}$, is about (N = 14, C = 12, O = 16, H = 1)
- a35%
- b46.7%
- c28%
- d64%
Answer (b): Molar mass $= 60$; N $= 28$; $28/60 \times 100 = 46.7%$.
Revise: Modern Chemical Manufactures (Class 11 notes)
Q98Titration indicators
The suitable indicator for the titration of a strong acid with a weak base is
- aphenolphthalein
- bmethyl orange
- cthymol blue
- dno indicator is needed
Answer (b): The equivalence point is acidic (pH below 7), which is matched by methyl orange's range of 3.1 to 4.4.
Revise: Volumetric Analysis (Class 12 notes)
Q99Volumetric analysis
20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH neutralises 10 mL of a HCl solution. The molarity of the HCl is
- a0.05 M
- b0.1 M
- c0.2 M
- d0.4 M
Answer (c): $M_1V_1 = M_2V_2$: $0.1 \times 20 = M \times 10$, so $M = 0.2$ M.
Revise: Volumetric Analysis (Class 12 notes)
Q100Flame test
Calcium salts impart which colour to a flame?
- aapple green
- bbrick red
- ccrimson red
- dgolden yellow
Answer (b): Ca gives brick red, Ba apple green, Sr crimson red and Na golden yellow.
Zoology
Q101Theories of evolution
The idea that the long neck of the giraffe arose because ancestors kept stretching to reach leaves and passed on this acquired trait was proposed by
- aDarwin
- bDe Vries
- cLamarck
- dWeismann
Answer (c): Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired characters (use and disuse) explains the giraffe neck this way. Darwin used natural selection and De Vries mutation.
Revise: Theories of Organic Evolution (Class 11 notes)
Q102Evidences of evolution
The forelimb of a human and the wing of a bat are examples of
- aanalogous organs
- bvestigial organs
- catavistic organs
- dhomologous organs
Answer (d): Both share the same basic bone plan (same origin) but are modified for different functions, which defines homologous organs and shows divergent evolution.
Revise: Evidences of Evolution (Class 11 notes)
Q103Natural selection
In industrial areas the dark form of the peppered moth became common because birds ate the light form more often. This is an example of
- anatural selection
- binheritance of acquired characters
- cgenetic drift
- dartificial selection
Answer (a): Dark moths were better camouflaged on soot-covered trees, so they survived and reproduced more: selection by the environment.
Revise: Theories of Organic Evolution (Class 11 notes)
Q104Phylum Porifera
Choanocytes (collar cells) are characteristic of phylum
- aCnidaria
- bPlatyhelminthes
- cPorifera
- dAnnelida
Answer (c): Sponges (Porifera) have flagellated collar cells lining the spongocoel that create water current and trap food.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q105Phylum Cnidaria
Stinging cells called cnidoblasts are found in
- aPlanaria
- bEarthworm
- cStarfish
- dHydra
Answer (d): Cnidoblasts (nematocyst-bearing cells) are the defining feature of phylum Cnidaria, to which Hydra belongs.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q106Phylum Echinodermata
A water vascular system used for locomotion and feeding is a feature of
- aEchinodermata
- bMollusca
- cArthropoda
- dNematoda
Answer (a): Starfish and other echinoderms move by tube feet operated by the water vascular system.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q107Classification of animals
A bilaterally symmetrical, unsegmented animal with a pseudocoelom and a complete alimentary canal is most likely
- aTaenia
- bAscaris
- cHydra
- dPheretima
Answer (b): Ascaris (Aschelminthes) has a pseudocoelom. Taenia is acoelomate with no gut, Hydra is diploblastic and Pheretima is a true coelomate and segmented.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q108Epithelial tissue
Which tissue lines the walls of alveoli and blood capillaries to allow rapid diffusion?
- aSimple columnar epithelium
- bStratified squamous epithelium
- cCuboidal epithelium
- dSimple squamous epithelium
Answer (d): A single layer of thin flat cells gives the shortest diffusion path.
Revise: Animal Tissues (Class 12 notes)
Q109Connective tissue
Bone-forming cells are called
- aosteoblasts
- bosteoclasts
- cchondrocytes
- dfibroblasts
Answer (a): Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix; osteoclasts resorb bone and chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
Revise: Animal Tissues (Class 12 notes)
Q110Muscular tissue
Intercalated discs are a distinguishing feature of
- askeletal muscle
- bcardiac muscle
- csmooth muscle
- dnervous tissue
Answer (b): Intercalated discs join cardiac muscle fibres and let impulses spread quickly for synchronized contraction.
Revise: Animal Tissues (Class 12 notes)
Q111Nervous tissue
The part of a neuron that receives impulses and conducts them toward the cell body is the
- aaxon
- bmyelin sheath
- cdendrite
- dnode of Ranvier
Answer (c): Dendrites receive stimuli; the axon carries the impulse away from the cell body.
Revise: Animal Tissues (Class 12 notes)
Q112Earthworm
The excretory organs of earthworm are
- anephridia
- bMalpighian tubules
- cflame cells
- dgreen glands
Answer (a): Earthworm has segmentally arranged nephridia. Malpighian tubules occur in cockroach and flame cells in flatworms.
Revise: Detailed Study of Earthworm (Class 11 notes)
Q113Frog
The heart of a frog has
- aone atrium and one ventricle
- btwo atria and one ventricle
- ctwo atria and two ventricles
- done atrium and two ventricles
Answer (b): The frog heart is three-chambered, so oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix partly in the single ventricle.
Revise: Frog (Rana tigrina) (Class 11 notes)
Q114Cockroach
Cockroach breathes through
- abook lungs
- bgills
- ctracheae opening by spiracles
- dskin
Answer (c): Insects have a tracheal system; air enters through paired spiracles on the thorax and abdomen.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q115Plasmodium
The stage of Plasmodium that is injected into humans by the bite of a female Anopheles is the
- amerozoite
- bgametocyte
- ctrophozoite
- dsporozoite
Answer (d): Sporozoites from the mosquito's salivary glands are injected into human blood and go to the liver.
Revise: Parasite (Class 11 notes)
Q116Cockroach
In cockroach, nitrogenous wastes are removed mainly by
- anephridia
- bMalpighian tubules
- ckidneys
- dgreen glands
Answer (b): Malpighian tubules collect uric acid from the haemolymph and pass it into the hindgut.
Revise: Kingdom Animalia (Class 11 notes)
Q117Earthworm
The clitellum of earthworm, concerned with cocoon formation, lies in segments
- a1 to 3
- b5 to 7
- c14 to 16
- d20 to 22
Answer (c): The glandular clitellum forms a girdle in segments 14, 15 and 16 and secretes the cocoon.
Revise: Detailed Study of Earthworm (Class 11 notes)
Q118Digestion
The enzyme in saliva that begins the digestion of starch is
- apepsin
- blipase
- ctrypsin
- dsalivary amylase
Answer (d): Salivary amylase (ptyalin) hydrolyses starch to maltose in the mouth.
Revise: Digestive System (Class 12 notes)
Q119Endocrinology
Insulin is secreted by the
- abeta cells of the islets of Langerhans
- balpha cells of the islets of Langerhans
- cacinar cells of pancreas
- dadrenal cortex
Answer (a): Beta cells make insulin (lowers blood glucose); alpha cells make glucagon.
Revise: Endocrinology (Class 12 notes)
Q120Circulation
The natural pacemaker of the human heart is the
- aatrioventricular node
- bbundle of His
- csinoatrial node
- dPurkinje fibres
Answer (c): The SA node in the right atrium generates the impulse that initiates each heartbeat.
Revise: Circulatory System (Class 12 notes)
Q121Excretion
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the
- aneuron
- balveolus
- cvillus
- dnephron
Answer (d): A nephron consists of a renal corpuscle and a tubule and forms urine.
Revise: Excretory System (Class 12 notes)
Q122Respiration
The approximate tidal volume of a healthy adult at rest is
- a500 mL
- b1200 mL
- c3500 mL
- d5000 mL
Answer (a): Normal quiet breathing moves about 500 mL of air per breath.
Revise: Respiratory System (Class 12 notes)
Q123Blood groups
The universal blood donor is
- aAB positive
- bO negative
- cA negative
- dB positive
Answer (b): Group O red cells carry no A or B antigens and Rh negative lacks the D antigen, so they are accepted by all.
Revise: Circulatory System (Class 12 notes)
Q124Nervous system
The part of the brain that coordinates balance and posture is the
- acerebrum
- bmedulla oblongata
- cthalamus
- dcerebellum
Answer (d): The cerebellum integrates sensory input to maintain equilibrium and smooth muscle movement.
Revise: Nervous System (Class 12 notes)
Q125Sense organs
Vision in dim light is mainly due to
- arod cells
- bcone cells
- cbipolar cells
- dganglion cells
Answer (a): Rods contain rhodopsin and are very sensitive to low light but do not give colour vision.
Revise: Sense Organs (Class 12 notes)
Q126Endocrinology
Oxytocin, which stimulates uterine contraction during childbirth, is released from the
- aanterior pituitary
- bposterior pituitary
- cthyroid
- dadrenal medulla
Answer (b): Oxytocin is made in the hypothalamus and stored and released by the posterior pituitary.
Revise: Endocrinology (Class 12 notes)
Q127Reproduction
Fertilization in the human female normally occurs in the
- auterus
- bvagina
- campulla of the fallopian tube
- dovary
Answer (c): The egg meets sperm in the upper part (ampulla) of the oviduct, and the zygote then moves to the uterus.
Revise: Reproductive System (Class 12 notes)
Q128Blood groups
A patient with blood group A needs a transfusion and group A blood is not available. Which group can be given safely (ignoring Rh)?
- aO
- bB
- cAB
- dNone of the groups
Answer (a): Group A plasma has anti-B antibodies, so B or AB cells would clump. O cells have no A or B antigens.
Revise: Circulatory System (Class 12 notes)
Q129Digestion
The enzyme pepsin works best in the stomach because gastric juice
- ais alkaline due to bile
- bis strongly acidic due to HCl
- ccontains lipase
- dis neutral
Answer (b): HCl provides pH about 2 and converts inactive pepsinogen to pepsin, which digests proteins.
Revise: Digestive System (Class 12 notes)
Q130Excretion
A person's urine is found to contain protein. The part of the nephron most likely damaged is the
- aloop of Henle
- bcollecting duct
- cglomerulus
- ddistal convoluted tubule
Answer (c): Healthy glomerular filtration holds back large proteins. Damage lets them leak into the filtrate.
Revise: Excretory System (Class 12 notes)
Q131Endocrinology
Deficiency of thyroxine in an adult causes
- acretinism
- bacromegaly
- cAddison's disease
- dmyxoedema
Answer (d): Hypothyroidism in adults gives myxoedema. In infants it gives cretinism.
Revise: Endocrinology (Class 12 notes)
Q132Respiration
Most of the oxygen in blood is transported as
- adissolved oxygen in plasma
- boxyhaemoglobin
- ccarbaminohaemoglobin
- dbicarbonate
Answer (b): About 97 percent binds to haemoglobin as oxyhaemoglobin and only about 3 percent dissolves in plasma.
Revise: Respiratory System (Class 12 notes)
Q133Microbial diseases
Typhoid fever is caused by
- aVibrio cholerae
- bMycobacterium tuberculosis
- cSalmonella typhi
- dPlasmodium vivax
Answer (c): Salmonella typhi is a bacterium spread by contaminated food and water.
Revise: Microbial Diseases (Class 12 notes)
Q134Immunology
Antibodies are secreted mainly by
- amacrophages
- bmast cells
- cplatelets
- dplasma cells
Answer (d): B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells, which release antibodies.
Revise: Microbial Diseases (Class 12 notes)
Q135Immunity
A snake-bite victim is given antivenom containing ready-made antibodies. This provides
- apassive immunity
- bactive natural immunity
- cactive artificial immunity
- dno immunity
Answer (a): Immunity from antibodies supplied from outside is passive. Active immunity requires the body to make its own antibodies, as after a vaccine.
Revise: Microbial Diseases (Class 12 notes)
Q136Vaccines
The BCG vaccine is given to protect against
- atyphoid
- bpolio
- ctuberculosis
- dtetanus
Answer (c): BCG is a weakened Mycobacterium bovis strain that protects against tuberculosis.
Revise: Microbial Diseases (Class 12 notes)
Q137Medical technology
Imaging of a foetus inside the uterus without ionizing radiation is done by
- aX-ray radiography
- bCT scan
- cradioactive tracer scan
- dultrasonography
Answer (d): Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves, safe for the foetus.
Revise: Human Health and Disorders (Class 12 notes)
Q138Biotechnology
The technique used to make millions of copies of a specific DNA segment in vitro is
- aPCR
- bgel electrophoresis
- cELISA
- dblotting
Answer (a): Polymerase chain reaction cycles denaturation, annealing and extension with Taq polymerase to amplify DNA.
Revise: Biotechnology (Class 12 notes)
Q139Conservation
Conservation of animals within their natural habitat, as in a national park, is called
- aex situ conservation
- bin situ conservation
- ccaptive breeding
- dcryopreservation
Answer (b): In situ means in the original place. Zoos and seed banks are ex situ.
Revise: Conservation Biology (Class 11 notes)
Q140Conservation
A catalogue that lists endangered and threatened species worldwide is the
- aWildlife Protection Act
- bCITES appendix only
- cRamsar list
- dIUCN Red Data Book
Answer (d): The IUCN Red List (Red Data Book) classifies species by extinction risk.
Revise: Conservation Biology (Class 11 notes)
Botany
Q141Biomolecules
The monomers of proteins are
- aamino acids
- bnucleotides
- cmonosaccharides
- dfatty acids
Answer (a): Amino acids join through peptide bonds to form polypeptides.
Revise: Biomolecules (Class 11 notes)
Q142Biomolecules
The storage polysaccharide of animals is
- astarch
- bglycogen
- ccellulose
- dchitin
Answer (b): Glycogen is stored in liver and muscle. Starch is the plant reserve.
Revise: Biomolecules (Class 11 notes)
Q143Algae
Reproduction by conjugation is common in the green alga
- aChlamydomonas
- bVolvox
- cSpirogyra
- dUlothrix
Answer (c): In Spirogyra the contents of one filament cell pass through a conjugation tube into the cell of another filament.
Revise: Algae (Class 11 notes)
Q144Fungi
The cell wall of fungi is made of
- achitin
- bcellulose
- cpeptidoglycan
- dlignin
Answer (a): Fungal walls contain chitin, unlike plant walls (cellulose) and bacterial walls (peptidoglycan).
Revise: Mycota (Fungi) (Class 11 notes)
Q145Bryophyta
In bryophytes the dominant, independent phase of the life cycle is the
- asporophyte
- bgametophyte
- czygote
- dsporangium
Answer (b): The leafy or thalloid plant is haploid gametophyte, and the sporophyte depends on it.
Revise: Bryophyta (Class 11 notes)
Q146Pteridophyta
The gametophyte of a fern is called
- aprotonema
- bstrobilus
- cprothallus
- dsorus
Answer (c): A fern spore germinates into a small heart-shaped prothallus bearing antheridia and archegonia.
Revise: Pteridophyta (Class 11 notes)
Q147Gymnosperms
Gymnosperms are called so because they
- ahave no seeds
- bhave no flowers or seeds
- clack vascular tissue
- dhave naked seeds
Answer (d): Their ovules are not enclosed in an ovary, so seeds are exposed on cone scales.
Revise: Gymnosperms (Class 11 notes)
Q148Virus
The genetic material of Tobacco Mosaic Virus is
- adouble-stranded DNA
- bsingle-stranded RNA
- csingle-stranded DNA
- ddouble-stranded RNA
Answer (b): TMV has a helical protein coat around a single-stranded RNA.
Revise: Introductory Microbiology (Class 11 notes)
Q149Bacteria
A Gram-positive bacterium appears _____ after Gram staining.
- apink
- bcolourless
- cpurple
- dgreen
Answer (c): Thick peptidoglycan retains the crystal violet stain, so the cells appear purple. Gram-negative cells appear pink.
Revise: Introductory Microbiology (Class 11 notes)
Q150Angiosperms
In angiosperms the endosperm is typically
- ahaploid
- bdiploid
- ctetraploid
- dtriploid
Answer (d): One sperm fuses with the two polar nuclei in double fertilization, so endosperm is 3n.
Revise: Angiosperms (Class 11 notes)
Q151Lichens
A lichen is a symbiotic association between
- aan alga or cyanobacterium and a fungus
- ba moss and a fern
- ca bacterium and a virus
- da fungus and a root
Answer (a): The photobiont makes food and the mycobiont gives protection and water.
Revise: Lichens (Class 11 notes)
Q152Energy flow
If producers in a grassland fix 10000 J of energy, by the ten percent law the secondary consumers receive about
- a1000 J
- b10 J
- c100 J
- d10000 J
Answer (c): Producers 10000 J, herbivores 1000 J, secondary consumers 100 J.
Revise: Ecology (Class 11 notes)
Q153Ecological succession
The pioneer organisms in primary succession on bare rock are
- ashrubs
- btrees
- cgrasses
- dlichens
Answer (d): Crustose lichens secrete acids that weather rock and begin soil formation.
Revise: Ecology (Class 11 notes)
Q154Vegetation of Nepal
The dominant tree of the tropical forests of the Nepal Terai is
- aShorea robusta
- bPinus roxburghii
- cRhododendron arboreum
- dAbies spectabilis
Answer (a): Sal (Shorea robusta) forms the main forest of the Terai and Siwalik region.
Revise: Vegetation (Class 11 notes)
Q155Plant adaptation
Large air cavities (aerenchyma) in stems and roots are an adaptation of
- axerophytes
- bhydrophytes
- chalophytes
- depiphytes
Answer (b): Aerenchyma gives buoyancy and stores air in aquatic plants.
Revise: Ecology (Class 11 notes)
Q156Cell organelles
The organelle called the powerhouse of the cell is the
- aribosome
- bGolgi body
- clysosome
- dmitochondrion
Answer (d): ATP is produced by oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.
Revise: Cell (Class 11 notes)
Q157Cell division
Crossing over takes place during which stage of meiosis?
- aPachytene of prophase I
- bMetaphase I
- cAnaphase II
- dLeptotene of prophase I
Answer (a): Non-sister chromatids of synapsed homologues exchange segments in pachytene.
Revise: Cell Division (Class 11 notes)
Q158Cell division
A diploid cell with 46 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. Each daughter cell will have
- a46 chromosomes
- b23 chromosomes
- c92 chromosomes
- d12 chromosomes
Answer (b): Meiosis halves the chromosome number, so each gamete is haploid with 23.
Revise: Cell Division (Class 11 notes)
Q159Cell membrane
The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane was proposed by
- aWatson and Crick
- bSchleiden and Schwann
- cSinger and Nicolson
- dRobertson
Answer (c): Singer and Nicolson (1972) described proteins floating in a fluid lipid bilayer.
Revise: Cell (Class 11 notes)
Q160Cell division
A plant cell has 2n = 14. The number of chromosomes present in the cell during anaphase of mitosis is
- a28
- b14
- c7
- d56
Answer (a): Sister chromatids separate, so the cell momentarily has 28 chromosomes, 14 at each pole.
Revise: Cell Division (Class 11 notes)
Q161Mendelian genetics
The phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross showing complete dominance is
- a1:1
- b3:1
- c9:3:3:1
- d1:2:1
Answer (b): Tt x Tt gives 3 dominant to 1 recessive phenotype.
Revise: Mendelian Genetics (Class 12 notes)
Q162Mendelian genetics
A cross between an individual of unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive individual is called
- aa back cross to the dominant parent
- ba reciprocal cross
- ca test cross
- da dihybrid cross
Answer (c): A test cross reveals whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.
Revise: Mendelian Genetics (Class 12 notes)
Q163Mendelian genetics
A heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). The ratio of tall to dwarf offspring is expected to be
- a3:1
- b1:2:1
- call tall
- d1:1
Answer (d): Tt gives T and t gametes and tt gives only t, so offspring are 1 Tt (tall) to 1 tt (dwarf).
Revise: Mendelian Genetics (Class 12 notes)
Q164Genetic material
In a DNA molecule, adenine makes up 30 percent of the bases. The percentage of guanine is
- a30
- b20
- c40
- d70
Answer (b): A = T = 30 percent, leaving 40 percent for G + C, so G = 20 percent (Chargaff's rule).
Revise: Genetic Materials (Class 12 notes)
Q165Mutation and polyploidy
Doubling of chromosome sets (polyploidy) in plants can be induced artificially by
- aethylene
- bauxin
- ccolchicine
- dpenicillin
Answer (c): Colchicine blocks spindle formation, so chromosomes fail to separate and the number doubles.
Revise: Mutation and Polyploidy (Class 12 notes)
Q166Linkage and crossing over
Crossing over exchanges segments between
- asister chromatids of one chromosome
- bnon-homologous chromosomes
- ctwo daughter cells
- dnon-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
Answer (d): This recombination breaks linkage and produces new allele combinations.
Revise: Linkage and Crossing Over (Class 12 notes)
Q167Plant tissues
The tissue that conducts water and minerals upward in plants is
- axylem
- bphloem
- ccambium
- dcollenchyma
Answer (a): Xylem vessels and tracheids carry water from roots to leaves. Phloem carries food.
Revise: Plant Anatomy (Class 12 notes)
Q168Secondary growth
Increase in the girth of a dicot stem is due to the activity of
- aapical meristem
- bintercalary meristem
- cvascular cambium
- dphellem only
Answer (c): Cambium adds secondary xylem and phloem and so increases thickness (secondary growth).
Revise: Plant Anatomy (Class 12 notes)
Q169Anatomy of stem
A stem transverse section shows vascular bundles arranged in a ring, conjoint, collateral and open. The stem is of a
- amonocot
- bgymnosperm only
- cpteridophyte
- ddicot
Answer (d): Open bundles with cambium in a ring are typical of dicot stems. Monocots have scattered closed bundles.
Revise: Plant Anatomy (Class 12 notes)
Q170Photosynthesis
The light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in the
- athylakoid membranes of grana
- bstroma
- cmatrix of mitochondria
- dcytoplasm
Answer (a): Photosystems and electron carriers are in thylakoid membranes. The Calvin cycle occurs in stroma.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis and Respiration (Class 12 notes)
Q171Respiration
The net gain of ATP from one glucose molecule in glycolysis is
- a4
- b2
- c8
- d38
Answer (b): 4 ATP are formed and 2 are used, so the net gain is 2 ATP.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis and Respiration (Class 12 notes)
Q172Plant hormones
The hormone that causes ripening of fruits is
- aauxin
- bgibberellin
- ccytokinin
- dethylene
Answer (d): Ethylene is a gaseous hormone that triggers ripening and senescence.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Plant Hormones and Growth (Class 12 notes)
Q173Plant hormones
During drought a plant closes its stomata. The hormone responsible is
- aabscisic acid
- bgibberellic acid
- cindole acetic acid
- dzeatin
Answer (a): ABA makes guard cells lose turgor, so stomata close and water loss falls.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Plant Hormones and Growth (Class 12 notes)
Q174Photosynthesis
In photosynthesis, the oxygen released comes from
- acarbon dioxide
- bwater
- cglucose
- dATP
Answer (b): Photolysis of water in photosystem II releases O2, as shown by isotopic labelling.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis and Respiration (Class 12 notes)
Q175Transpiration
Transpiration mainly occurs through
- alenticels
- bcuticle
- cstomata
- droot hairs
Answer (c): Most water vapour leaves through the stomatal pores of the leaves.
Revise: Plant Physiology: Plant Hormones and Growth (Class 12 notes)
Q176Embryo sac
A mature embryo sac of a typical angiosperm is
- a7-celled and 8-nucleate
- b8-celled and 8-nucleate
- c4-celled and 4-nucleate
- d3-celled and 3-nucleate
Answer (a): It has 3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg and a central cell with 2 polar nuclei: 7 cells, 8 nuclei.
Revise: Angiosperms (Class 11 notes)
Q177Microsporogenesis
The nutritive layer of the anther wall that nourishes developing pollen grains is the
- aendothecium
- btapetum
- cepidermis
- dmiddle layer
Answer (b): The innermost tapetum supplies food to microspore mother cells and pollen.
Revise: Angiosperms (Class 11 notes)
Q178Plant tissue culture
Whole plants can be regenerated from a single cell in tissue culture because of
- aapical dominance
- bvernalization
- ctotipotency
- dphotoperiodism
Answer (c): Totipotency is the ability of a living plant cell to give rise to a complete plant.
Revise: Biotechnology (Class 12 notes)
Q179Genetically modified crops
Bt cotton is resistant to
- afungal wilt
- bdrought
- cherbicides only
- dbollworm
Answer (d): It carries a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis for a toxin lethal to bollworm larvae.
Revise: Biotechnology (Class 12 notes)
Q180Biofertilizers
Root nodules of leguminous plants contain the nitrogen-fixing biofertilizer
- aAzotobacter
- bRhizobium
- cNostoc
- dMycorrhiza
Answer (b): Rhizobium lives symbiotically in legume nodules and fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
Revise: Applied Biology (Class 12 notes)
MAT
Q181Verbal analogy
Book is to reading as fork is to
- acooking
- bcutting
- ceating
- dkitchen
Answer (c): A book is used for reading, a fork is used for eating (tool to action).
Q182Odd one out
Which one is different from the rest: mango, apple, potato, banana?
- amango
- bapple
- cbanana
- dpotato
Answer (d): Mango, apple and banana are fruits that grow above ground, potato is a tuber (vegetable).
Q183Antonyms
Choose the word opposite in meaning to SCARCE.
- aabundant
- brare
- climited
- dmeagre
Answer (a): Scarce means in short supply; abundant is the opposite. The others are synonyms.
Q184Classification
Which one is different from the rest: sparrow, eagle, bat, parrot?
- asparrow
- beagle
- cbat
- dparrot
Answer (c): Bat is a mammal. The others are birds.
Q185Synonyms
Choose the word closest in meaning to BENEVOLENT.
- acruel
- bcareless
- cselfish
- dkind
Answer (d): Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly.
Q186Number series
Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
- a42
- b40
- c44
- d36
Answer (a): Differences are 4, 6, 8, 10, so the next is 12 and 30 + 12 = 42.
Q187Percentage
If 15 percent of a number is 45, the number is
- a225
- b300
- c450
- d675
Answer (b): Number = 45 x 100 / 15 = 300.
Q188Ratio
Two numbers are in ratio 3:5 and their sum is 64. The larger number is
- a24
- b32
- c48
- d40
Answer (d): One part = 64 / 8 = 8, so the larger is 5 x 8 = 40.
Q189Profit and loss
A trader buys an article for Rs 400 and sells it for Rs 500. His profit percent is
- a25
- b20
- c100
- d15
Answer (a): Profit = 100, and 100 / 400 x 100 = 25 percent.
Q190Averages
The average of five numbers is 12. Four of them are 10, 11, 13 and 14. The fifth number is
- a10
- b12
- c14
- d15
Answer (b): Total = 60, the four sum to 48, so the fifth is 12.
Q191Letter series
Find the next letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
- aT
- bV
- cU
- dS
Answer (c): Positions are 1, 3, 6, 10, 15 with gaps +2, +3, +4, +5, so the next gap is +6: 21, which is U.
Q192Number series
Find the next number: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?
- a38
- b36
- c40
- d35
Answer (a): Differences are 3, 5, 7, 9, so the next is 11 and 27 + 11 = 38.
Q193Logical order
In the natural life-cycle order of a flowering plant (seed, plant, flower, fruit), which stage comes third?
- aseed
- bflower
- cplant
- dfruit
Answer (b): The order is seed, then plant, then flower, then fruit.
Q194Number series
Find the next number: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?
- a15
- b19
- c17
- d16
Answer (c): These are consecutive prime numbers and the one after 13 is 17.
Q195Calendar
If today is Wednesday, the day after 100 days will be
- aThursday
- bSaturday
- cWednesday
- dFriday
Answer (d): 100 = 14 weeks + 2 days, so two days after Wednesday is Friday.
Q196Direction sense
Ram walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
- a5 km
- b3 km
- c8 km
- d13 km
Answer (b): He goes 5 km north, 3 km east, then 5 km south, so he is back level with the start, 3 km east of it.
Q197Cube painting
A solid cube painted on all faces is cut into 27 equal small cubes. How many small cubes have exactly two painted faces?
- a8
- b6
- c12
- d1
Answer (c): Edge cubes (not corner) have two painted faces: 12 edges x 1 cube each = 12. Corners (8) have three, face centres (6) have one.
Q198Mirror images
The mirror image of the letter 'b' placed before a vertical mirror looks like
- ap
- bq
- cb
- dd
Answer (d): A vertical mirror reverses left and right, so b appears as d.
Q199Mirror images (clock)
A clock shows exactly 4 o'clock. In a plane mirror, the time seen is
- a8 o'clock
- b6 o'clock
- c7 o'clock
- d4 o'clock
Answer (a): Mirror time = 12 - 4 = 8.
Q200Dice
On a standard die, opposite faces add up to 7. The face opposite to 2 is
- a4
- b6
- c5
- d3
Answer (c): 7 - 2 = 5.