2081

PHY118 · TU past paper

Physics 2081 question paper

The complete TU 2081 exam paper for Physics (PHY118), all 12 questions with solved model answers written to the mark scheme.

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  1. 110 marksThe semiconductor diodeAnswer

    What do you mean by the contact potential? Give band scheme of a p-n Junction by illustrating: (a) Potential difference V, resulting from the positive donor ions in the n-side of the junction and the negative acceptor ions in the p-side of the depletion layer (b) Potential energy barrier faced by the majority charge carriers (electrons) in the n-side of the diode as they attempt to cross the junction. (c) Potential energy barrier faced by the majority side of the diode as they attempt to cross the junction.[10]

    Contact Potential and Band Scheme of a P-N Junction

    Contact Potential (Definition)

    When a p-type and an n-type semiconductor are joined together, diffusion of charge carriers occurs across the junction:

    • Holes from the p-side diffuse into the n-side
    • Electrons from the n-side diffuse into the p-side

    At the junction, recombination takes place. This leaves behind:

    • Negative acceptor ions on the p-side (immobile, fixed)
    • Positive donor ions on the n-side (immobile, fixed)

    This region of uncovered fixed ions is called the depletion layer. The separation of these fixed charges creates a built-in electric field directed from the n-side to the p-side. The potential difference established across this depletion layer due to these uncovered ions is called the contact potential (also called the built-in potential or barrier potential), denoted V₀.

    The contact potential prevents further net diffusion of majority carriers across the junction at equilibrium. Typical values are ~0.3 V for Ge and ~0.7 V for Si.


    Band Scheme of a P-N Junction

    The energy band diagram of a p-n junction at equilibrium is drawn below, illustrating all three required aspects.

    n-side          Depletion Layer          p-side
                    |                |
                    |                |
      Ec __________|                 |__________  Ec
                   |  eV₀ (barrier) |
                   |                 \
                   |                  \________  Ei
      Ei _________ |                            
                   |                  ________  Ev
      Ev __________|                 |
                    |                |
                    |                |
      (+) donor ions|                |(-) acceptor ions
    

    A cleaner schematic representation:

    ENERGY
      ^
      |   n-side                          p-side
      |
      |  Ec(n)----\                              /---- Ec(p)
      |            \          eV₀              /
      |             \    <------------->      /
      |              \                       /
      |  Ev(n)--------\                     /---------- Ev(p)
      |                \___________________/
      |
      |<--- n-region --->|<-depletion->|<--- p-region --->
      +---------------------------------------------------------> x
    

    (a) Potential Difference V₀ Due to Fixed Ions in the Depletion Layer

    When p-type and n-type semiconductors are joined:

    • On the n-side of the depletion layer: electrons have left, exposing positive donor ions (+)
    • On the p-side of the depletion layer: holes have left, exposing negative acceptor ions (-)

    This charge separation creates an internal electric field E pointing from n-side (+) to p-side (-), which gives rise to a potential difference V₀ across the depletion layer.

    p-side                              n-side
      |  (-)  (-)  (-)  | (-)  (+)  (+)  (+)  (+)  |
      |  Acceptor ions  |      Donor ions           |
      |                 |                           |
      |<---- p -------->|<------ depletion -------->|
      
      Electric field E:  <========================
                         (from n-side to p-side)
    
      Potential:
      V
      |                                    _____ V₀
      |                                   /
      |_________________________________ /
      |
      +-----------------------------------------> x
           p-side          depletion      n-side
    

    The potential rises from p-side to n-side by the amount V₀ (contact potential). This is the built-in potential barrier.


    (b) Potential Energy Barrier for Majority Electrons (n-side)

    Electrons are the majority carriers in the n-side. As they attempt to cross the junction from n-side to p-side, they face the conduction band energy barrier.

    Since the n-side is at higher potential (V₀), the potential energy of electrons (charge = -e) on the n-side is lower than on the p-side. Therefore, electrons moving from n to p must climb an energy hill of magnitude:

    $$\boxed{E_{barrier} = eV_0}$$

    ENERGY
      ^
      |
      |  Ec(n)                              Ec(p)
      |   ___                               ___
      |      \                             /
      |       \       eV₀ barrier         /
      |        \    <----------->        /
      |         \__________________________/
      |
      |  Electrons in n-side must climb UP by eV₀ to reach p-side
      |
      |         n-side -----> junction -----> p-side
      +---------------------------------------------------------> x
    
    • The conduction band edge Ec(p) is higher than Ec(n) by eV₀
    • Majority electrons in the n-side do not have sufficient thermal energy to surmount this barrier at equilibrium
    • This barrier prevents spontaneous flow of electrons from n to p

    (c) Potential Energy Barrier for Majority Holes (p-side)

    Holes are the majority carriers in the p-side. As they attempt to cross the junction from p-side to n-side, they face the valence band energy barrier.

    Since holes carry positive charge (+e), and the p-side is at lower potential, holes moving from p to n must also climb an energy hill of magnitude:

    $$\boxed{E_{barrier} = eV_0}$$

    ENERGY
      ^
      |
      |         p-side -----> junction -----> n-side
      |
      |   Ev(p)                              Ev(n)
      |    ___                               ___
      |       \                             /
      |        \      eV₀ barrier          /
      |         \   <----------->         /
      |          \_______________________/
      |
      |  Holes in p-side must climb DOWN (in energy) by the same amount $eV_0$ to move into the n-side.
    
    • The valence band edge Ev(p) is offset from Ev(n) by the same barrier height eV₀ as the conduction band offset in part (b), because the conduction and valence bands bend together across the depletion region.
    • Majority holes in the p-side do not have sufficient thermal energy to surmount this barrier at equilibrium, exactly as electrons in the n-side could not surmount theirs.
    • This barrier prevents spontaneous flow of holes from p to n.

    Summary

    At thermal equilibrium, a single built-in potential $V_0$ arises from the fixed donor and acceptor ions exposed in the depletion layer (part a). This potential presents an equal energy barrier of $eV_0$ to both kinds of majority carriers trying to diffuse further across the junction: electrons on the n-side (part b) and holes on the p-side (part c). It is precisely because both barriers have the same height $eV_0$, and both currents they suppress are balanced by an equal and opposite minority-carrier drift current, that the net current across an unbiased p-n junction is zero and the junction remains in stable equilibrium.

  2. 210 marksSingle crystal growthAnswer

    Discuss single crystal growth by discussing following techniques: (a) Czochralski Method, (b) Bridgman-Stockelbarger Method, (c) Floating Zone Method and (d) Vapor-Phase Epitaxy.[10]

    The process of forming a large single crystal of silicon (or other semiconductor material) is called single crystal growth. The main methods used are: 1. Czochralski Method 2. Bridgman-Stockbarger Method 3. Floating Zone Method 4. Vapor-...

  3. 310 marksForce on current carrying wireAnswer

    Describe torque on a current-carrying rectangular loop of wire on a pivot rod when placed in a magnetic field. Give alternative way of increasing the torque on the coil.[10]

    Torque on a Current-Carrying Rectangular Loop in a Magnetic Field

    Setup and Description

    Consider a rectangular loop of wire ABCD of dimensions a × b (width × length), carrying current I, mounted on a pivot rod (axis of rotation), and placed in a uniform external magnetic field B.

    Let the plane of the loop make an angle φ with the magnetic field direction, so the normal to the loop makes an angle θ with B, where θ + φ = 90°.


    Forces on Each Side of the Loop

    Using the force law on a current-carrying conductor:

    $$\vec{F} = I(\vec{L} \times \vec{B})$$

    or magnitude: $F = BIL\sin\alpha$, where $\alpha$ is the angle between the current direction and B.

    Side AB and Side CD (parallel to the pivot axis, length = b)

    • The current in AB and CD flows parallel to the pivot rod axis.
    • The force on each is:

    $$F_{AB} = BIb\sin 90° = BIb$$ $$F_{CD} = BIb\sin 90° = BIb$$

    • These two forces are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, forming a couple (they do not cancel because they act on opposite sides).

    Side BC and Side DA (perpendicular to the pivot axis, length = a)

    • The forces on BC and DA are equal, opposite, and collinear along the pivot axis.
    • They produce no net torque (they cancel each other).

    Calculation of Torque

    The two forces on AB and CD (each of magnitude $F = BIb$) act at perpendicular distances from the pivot axis.

    The perpendicular distance between the two forces depends on the orientation of the loop. If the normal to the loop makes angle θ with B, the moment arm for each force is $\frac{a}{2}\sin\theta$.

    Therefore, the net torque is:

    $$\tau = F \cdot a\sin\theta$$

    $$\tau = BIb \cdot a\sin\theta$$

    $$\boxed{\tau = BIA\sin\theta}$$

    where $A = ab$ is the area of the loop.


    Expression in Terms of Magnetic Dipole Moment

    The magnetic dipole moment of the current loop is defined as:

    $$\vec{\mu} = I\vec{A} = IA\hat{n}$$

    where $\hat{n}$ is the unit normal to the loop (direction given by the right-hand rule), and $A$ is the area of the loop.

    The torque can then be written in vector form as:

    $$\boxed{\vec{\tau} = \vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}}$$

    with magnitude:

    $$\tau = \mu B\sin\theta = IAB\sin\theta$$

    Special Cases

    Angle θTorqueCondition
    θ = 0°τ = 0Loop normal parallel to B (stable equilibrium)
    θ = 90°τ = IAB (maximum)Loop plane parallel to B
    θ = 180°τ = 0Unstable equilibrium

    Potential Energy of the Dipole

    The potential energy of the magnetic dipole in the field is:

    $$E_p = -\vec{\mu} \cdot \vec{B} = -\mu B\cos\theta$$

    • Minimum energy (stable) at θ = 0°: $E_p = -\mu B$
    • Maximum energy (unstable) at θ = 180°: $E_p = +\mu B$

    Alternative Ways to Increase the Torque on the Coil

    From the expression $\tau = NIAB\sin\theta$, the torque can be increased by:

    1. Increasing the number of turns N: For a coil of N turns, $\tau = NIAB\sin\theta$. More turns means greater torque for the same current and field.

    2. Increasing the current I: A larger current directly increases the magnetic dipole moment $\mu = NIA$, hence increasing torque.

    3. Increasing the area A of the loop: A larger loop area (larger $a \times b$) increases the torque proportionally.

    4. Increasing the magnetic field strength B: Using a stronger external magnetic field increases the torque directly.

    5. Orienting the loop so that θ = 90°: The torque is maximum when the plane of the loop is parallel to B (i.e., the normal to the loop is perpendicular to B), giving $\tau_{max} = NIAB$.

    6. Using a ferromagnetic core inside the coil: This concentrates the magnetic field lines and effectively increases the flux, thereby increasing the torque (used in practical galvanometers and motors).


    Summary

    The torque on a current-carrying rectangular loop in a magnetic field is:

    $$\tau = NIAB\sin\theta$$

    This principle is the fundamental operating principle of electric motors and galvanometers, where electrical energy is converted to mechanical rotation through the torque produced on a current loop in a magnetic field.

  4. 45 marksNumericalOscillation of springAnswer

    An oscillating block of mass 250 g takes 0.15 sec to move between the endpoints of the motion, which are 40 cm apart. (a) What is the frequency of the motion? (b) What is the amplitude of the motion? (c) What is the force constant of the spring? [5]

    Solution: Oscillating Block on a Spring

    STEP 1 - Given Data

    QuantityValue
    Mass, $m$$250 \text{ g} = 0.25 \text{ kg}$
    Time between endpoints$0.15 \text{ s}$
    Distance between endpoints$40 \text{ cm} = 0.40 \text{ m}$

    Key interpretation: Moving between the two endpoints (extreme to extreme) is half of a full oscillation.

    $$\frac{T}{2} = 0.15 \text{ s} \implies T = 0.30 \text{ s}$$


    STEP 2 - Solve

    (a) Frequency

    $$f = \frac{1}{T} = \frac{1}{0.30} = 3.33 \text{ Hz}$$

    (b) Amplitude

    The endpoints are separated by $2A$:

    $$2A = 0.40 \text{ m} \implies A = 0.20 \text{ m}$$

    (c) Force Constant

    $$T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}} \implies k = \frac{4\pi^2 m}{T^2}$$

    $$k = \frac{4 \times (3.14159)^2 \times 0.25}{(0.30)^2} = \frac{9.8696}{0.09} = 109.66 \text{ N/m}$$


    Summary

    PartResult
    (a) Frequency$f = 3.33 \text{ Hz}$
    (b) Amplitude$A = 0.20 \text{ m}$
    (c) Force Constant$k \approx 109.7 \text{ N/m}$
  5. 55 marksNumericalForce on a moving chargeAnswer

    A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 200 V. It then enters a region where there is a magnetic field B = 0.5 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the proton. Find the force experienced by the proton. [5]

    Force on a Proton in a Magnetic Field

    Given Data

    QuantityValue
    Potential difference$V = 200$ V
    Magnetic field$B = 0.5$ T
    Angle between $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{B}$$\theta = 90°$
    Proton charge$q = e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C
    Proton mass$m = 1.67 \times 10^{-27}$ kg

    Step 1: Velocity Gained by the Proton

    Energy conservation:

    $$qV = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \implies v = \sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$$

    $$v = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 200}{1.67 \times 10^{-27}}}$$

    Numerator: $2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 200 = 6.4 \times 10^{-17}$

    $$v = \sqrt{\frac{6.4 \times 10^{-17}}{1.67 \times 10^{-27}}} = \sqrt{3.832 \times 10^{10}}$$

    $$v \approx 1.958 \times 10^{5} \text{ m/s}$$

    Step 2: Magnetic Force

    $$F = qvB\sin\theta, \qquad \theta = 90° \implies \sin\theta = 1$$

    $$F = qvB = (1.6 \times 10^{-19})(1.958 \times 10^{5})(0.5)$$

    Step-by-step:

    • $1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 1.958 \times 10^{5} = 3.133 \times 10^{-14}$
    • $\times 0.5 = 1.566 \times 10^{-14}$

    $$\boxed{F \approx 1.57 \times 10^{-14} \text{ N}}$$

    Result

    The force experienced by the proton is approximately $1.57 \times 10^{-14}$ N, directed perpendicular to both $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{B}$ (given by the right-hand rule). This force provides the centripetal force causing circular motion.

  6. 65 marksNumericalconductors, insulators and semiconductorsAnswer

    The energy gaps of some alkali halides are KCl = 7.6 eV, KBr = 6.3 eV, KI = 5.6 eV. Which of these are transparent to visible light? At what wavelength does each become opaque? [5]

    • Energy gap of KCl: $Eg = 7.6$ eV - Energy gap of KBr: $Eg = 6.3$ eV - Energy gap of KI: $Eg = 5.6$ eV - Visible light range: $\lambda \approx 4000$ Å to $7000$ Å - Constants: $h = 6.62 \times 10^{-34}$ J·s, $c = 3 \times 10^8$ m/s,
  7. 75 marksNumericalUniversal gatesAnswer

    The output of a digital circuit (y) is given by this expression $y = (AB + \overline{C}BA)(B + C)$ Where A, B and C represent inputs. Draw a circuit of above equation using OR, AND and NOT gate and hence find its truth table. [5+0]

    Digital Circuit: $y = (AB + \bar{C}BA)(B + C)$

    Step 1: Extract Given Data

    Boolean expression: $$y = (AB + \bar{C}BA)(B + C)$$

    Inputs: $A$, $B$, $C$ Gates allowed: OR, AND, NOT

    Step 2: Simplify the Expression

    The first bracket: $$AB + \bar{C}BA = AB + AB\bar{C} = AB(1 + \bar{C}) = AB$$

    (using $1 + \bar{C} = 1$)

    So: $$y = AB(B + C)$$

    Expand: $$y = AB\cdot B + AB\cdot C = ABB + ABC$$

    Since $B\cdot B = B$: $$y = AB + ABC = AB(1 + C) = AB$$

    Therefore: $$\boxed{y = AB}$$

    Step 3: Circuit Diagram (drawn as per given expression)

                            AB
    A ──┬──────────[AND1]──────────┐
        │            │             │
    B ──┼──┬─────────┘             ├─[OR1]─┐
        │  │                       │       │
        │  │   ┌─[AND2]────────────┘       │
        │  │   │  ABC̄                      ├─[AND3]── y
    C ──┼──┼─[NOT]                          │
        │  │   (C̄)                          │
        │  └───────────────[OR2]────────────┘
        │                   │  (B+C)
    C ──┴───────────────────┘
    

    Gate list:

    GateInputsOutput
    NOT$C$$\bar{C}$
    AND1$A, B$$AB$
    AND2$A, B, \bar{C}$$AB\bar{C}$
    OR1$AB, AB\bar{C}$$AB + AB\bar{C}$
    OR2$B, C$$B + C$
    AND3 (final)$(AB + AB\bar{C}),\ (B+C)$$y$

    Step 4: Truth Table

    $A$$B$$C$$\bar{C}$$AB$$AB\bar{C}$$AB+AB\bar{C}$$B+C$$y$
    000100000
    001000010
    010100010
    011000010
    100100000
    101000010
    110111111
    111010111

    Conclusion

    The circuit simplifies to $y = AB$. Output $y = 1$ only when both $A = 1$ and $B = 1$, independent of $C$.

  8. 85 marksgroup velocityAnswer

    Explain group velocity. [5]

    The velocity with which the wave packet obtained due to superposition of waves travelling in a group is called group velocity. It is denoted by vg. In other words, when a number of waves of slightly different frequencies and wavelengths ...

  9. 95 markseffective mass and holesAnswer

    Discuss effective mass of electrons and holes. [5]

    In a crystalline solid (semiconductor), electrons and holes do not move as free particles. They experience the periodic potential of the crystal lattice. To simplify the analysis, we use the concept of effective mass, which accounts for ...

  10. 105 marksSchrodinger theory of quantum mechanics anAnswer

    Set up Schrodinger equation and discuss the wavefunction. [5]

    Consider a free particle moving along the x-direction. The generalized wavefunction is taken as: $$\psi = A e^{i(kx - \omega t)} \quad \cdots (1)$$ where: - $k$ = wave number (propagation constant) - $\omega$ = angular frequency - $A$ = ...

  11. 115 marksNumericalUncertainty principle and its originAnswer

    A small particle of mass $10^{-6}$ g moves along the x axis; its speed is uncertain by $10^{-6}$ m/sec. (a) What is the uncertainty in the x coordinate of the particle? (b) Repeat the calculation for an electron assuming that the uncertainty in its velocity is also $10^{-6}$ m/sec. [5]

    Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

    Step 1 - Given Data

    • Mass of small particle: $m = 10^{-6}$ g $= 10^{-6} \times 10^{-3}$ kg $= 10^{-9}$ kg
    • Uncertainty in speed: $\Delta v_x = 10^{-6}$ m/s
    • Mass of electron: $m_e = 9.11 \times 10^{-31}$ kg
    • Planck's constant: $h = 6.626 \times 10^{-34}$ J·s

    Step 2 - Solution

    The uncertainty principle:

    $$\Delta x \cdot \Delta p_x \geq \frac{h}{4\pi}$$

    With $\Delta p_x = m,\Delta v_x$, the minimum position uncertainty is:

    $$\Delta x = \frac{h}{4\pi, m, \Delta v_x}$$

    Part (a): Small particle

    $$\Delta x = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{4\pi \times 10^{-9} \times 10^{-6}}$$

    Denominator:

    $$4\pi \times 10^{-15} = 1.2566 \times 10^{-14}$$

    $$\Delta x = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{1.2566 \times 10^{-14}} = 5.27 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{m}$$

    $$\boxed{\Delta x \approx 5.27 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{m}}$$

    This is negligibly small for a macroscopic particle.

    Part (b): Electron

    $$\Delta x = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{4\pi \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \times 10^{-6}}$$

    Denominator:

    $$4\pi \times 9.11 \times 10^{-37} = 12.566 \times 9.11 \times 10^{-37} = 1.1448 \times 10^{-35}$$

    $$\Delta x = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{1.1448 \times 10^{-35}} = 57.9\ \text{m}$$

    $$\boxed{\Delta x \approx 57.9\ \text{m}}$$

    Conclusion

    ParticleMass$\Delta x$
    Small particle$10^{-9}$ kg$5.27 \times 10^{-20}$ m (negligible)
    Electron$9.11 \times 10^{-31}$ kg$57.9$ m (large)

    The uncertainty principle is significant only at the microscopic scale. For the macroscopic particle the position uncertainty is unmeasurably small, while for the electron it is enormous, reflecting the fundamental quantum limitation on simultaneous knowledge of position and momentum.

    (Note: If the simpler form $\Delta x,\Delta p \geq h/2\pi$ or $\hbar$ is used, results differ by a constant factor of 2, but the $h/4\pi$ minimum-uncertainty form used here is standard.)

  12. 125 marksNumericalspace quantization and spinAnswer

    A beam of hydrogen atoms is used in a Stern-Gerlach type experiment. The atoms emerge from the oven with a velocity $v = 10^4$ m/sec. They enter a region 20 cm long where there is a magnetic field gradient $\frac{dB}{dz} = 3 \times 10^4$ T/m. The field gradient is perpendicular to the incident velocity of the atoms. The mass of the hydrogen atom is $1.67 \times 10^{-27}$ kg. What is the separation of the two components of the beam as they emerge from the magnet? [5]

    Stern-Gerlach Experiment: Beam Separation

    Given Data

    QuantityValue
    Velocity$v = 10^4$ m/s
    Field region length$L = 0.20$ m
    Field gradient$dB/dz = 3 \times 10^4$ T/m
    Mass of H atom$m = 1.67 \times 10^{-27}$ kg
    Bohr magneton$\mu_B = 9.274 \times 10^{-24}$ J/T

    Physics

    Force on each spin component: $F = \mu_B \dfrac{dB}{dz}$ (magnitude), directed oppositely for $m_s = \pm\tfrac12$.

    Step 1: Force

    $$F = (9.274\times 10^{-24})(3\times 10^4) = 2.782\times 10^{-19}\text{ N}$$

    Step 2: Acceleration

    $$a = \frac{F}{m} = \frac{2.782\times 10^{-19}}{1.67\times 10^{-27}} = 1.666\times 10^{8}\text{ m/s}^2$$

    Step 3: Transit time

    $$t = \frac{L}{v} = \frac{0.20}{10^4} = 2\times 10^{-5}\text{ s}$$

    Step 4: Deflection of one component

    $$z = \tfrac12 a t^2 = \tfrac12 (1.666\times 10^{8})(2\times 10^{-5})^2$$ $$= \tfrac12(1.666\times 10^{8})(4\times 10^{-10}) = 3.33\times 10^{-2}\text{ m}$$

    Step 5: Total separation

    $$\Delta z = 2z = 6.66\times 10^{-2}\text{ m} \approx 6.66\text{ cm}$$

    $$\boxed{\Delta z \approx 6.66\text{ cm}}$$

    The two components are separated by about 6.66 cm on emerging from the magnet.